Will the money gained be halaal or haraam


A married Muslim couple is living in Holland and are getting 1100 euro each month as their income from social security salary, they have 2 children. They are getting 1100 euro because the social security salary for a married couple is 1200 euro.


The matter of earning and consuming Haraam has been dealt with very strictly in the holy Quraan and Ahaadeeth. There are numerous Quranic verses and Ahaadeeth condemning this hideous crime. We will only mention a few herein. Despite the many warnings and punishments mentioned regarding the issue of Haraam, a mass exodus of humanity are still endeavouring to acquire wealth by means of Haraam avenues.

Hadith; “Earning Halaal is incumbent upon every Muslim”(Tabrani)

Hadith; Nabi (s.a.w) explained the desperate condition of a traveller who was in dire need but his condition was that he had consumed Haraam food and drink, likewise he was clothed with Haraam, thus this Du’a would never be answered.

‘Many a dishevelled man covered with dust, in an unsettled life travelling, his food is Haraam, his drink is Haraam, satisfied fully with Haraam, he raises his hands in supplication. Saying; Oh my sustainer! Oh my sustainer! How is it possible that his Du’a would be answered? (Muslim)

Hadith; “whoever is not careful regarding his earning then Allah does not care with regards to which part of Jahanam he enters him” ( Dailamee)

Hadith; “whoever consumes a morsel of Haraam his Salaah will not be accepted for forty nights.” (Dailamee)

Whoever is desirous of obeying Allah and obtaining from sins particulary earning and consuming Haraam, then a single Hadith is sufficient to mobilize his heart and persuade him to do good and abandon all sins.

In Islam deception is not permissible, likewise any such income that is earned by deceit would not be good and pure and therefore no Barakah would be contained therein. In the light of the question presented it was observed that the entire scenario is based on deception. The ongoing issue is one in which the husband sort of legally filed for a divorced according to the rules and regulations of the country and together with that he signed to the agreement of a divorce. However, at the time of signing to confirm the divorce he did not make intention that he is in reality divorcing his wife and nor did he verbally utter the words of Talaaq, and his wife also knew the reality of the matter, meaning that she was confident that her husband wasn’t divorcing her at all. Thus, the conclusion drawn from this entire dilemma is that Talaaq did not take place according to the Shariah.

And Allah Ta’aala knows best

Mufti Muhammed Ashraf

22 OCTOBER 2010 /14 ZUL QA’DAH 1431